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Continued discussion from the World Cup forum regarding NRR - nightprowler10
On the NRR rule no matter how many overs you bat the runrate is taken out of 50 overs.
So if BRM hit 100-we chase it down even in 3 overs (Exaggerating) Even though our actual runrate would have been 33.3333.... Our run rate would have been out of 50 overs.
So 100 runs in 50 overs is 2 an over.
Your kinda wrong.Indyan said:Why would India have been in big trouble?
Theoritically its easier to get the Net Run Rate up batting second.
Lets say that Bermuda scores 100 irrespective of whether batting first or second.
If India bats first then they can score at max at about 8 an over, this giving them NRR of +6.
If they bat second however, if they have a low score to chase they can go all out and play like they did in the slow overs. Its very possible then that they would score at more than 10rpo, thus giving them a NRR of atleast +8.
They probably wanted to replicate what Ireland and Bangladesh did.
On the NRR rule no matter how many overs you bat the runrate is taken out of 50 overs.
So if BRM hit 100-we chase it down even in 3 overs (Exaggerating) Even though our actual runrate would have been 33.3333.... Our run rate would have been out of 50 overs.
So 100 runs in 50 overs is 2 an over.
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